http://search.japantimes.co.jp/print/fl20061217x1.html Crazy.....this guy has quite a memory. The method he used to memorize all those numbers is intriguing though: Very cool.

Only 100,000 huh? "zero point nine nine nine nine nine nine nine nine..." *100,000 digits later* "... nine nine nine... um... uhhh... eight? sh*t i forgot what comes next..."

There's one autistic savant who can do it easily too. He just kept going and he was tested by some university people or whatnot. <shrugs> Nothing special in my world, where math only factors as a matter of division, multiplication, addition and subtraction. :cheese:

Lol. Good one. This thread will now explode amid a mass of blood-curdling screams and writhing tentacles of math teachers. You have doomed us all.

Don't worry. No one can seriously believe that 0.999... doesn't equal 1 anymore. Not after all the proof we laid forward.

If you take any sort of Calculus class, you'd understand the mathematics it takes to truly prove 0.9999 repeating equals 1. Otherwise, you can just rely on the fractions way of proving it... 1/3 = 0.3333 repeating 1/3 times 3 = 0.33333 times 3 3/3 = 0.9999 repeating And 3/3 = 1, so 0.9999 repeating must equal 1.

I use the derren brown style to remember extremely long numbers... like credit card numbers Peg system works great: 0 - z/s 1- L 2 - n 3 - m 4- r 5 - f/v 6 - b/p 7- t 8- ch//sh/j 9 - g Looks bizzare but once you memorize that you can use it to easily remember long numbers and such. In derren's book he teaches you a 24 digit number and you will remember all of the digits within just a few minutes of reading how to do his method. It's amazing - I can still remember the digits after I read that chapter 3 weeks ago.

>< NUFF WITH THE MATH JARGEN! That Chinese man has an incredible memory btw. Sure it doesn't serve society much good, but good heck!

I don't believe it does. Just because a number is infinitely close to one, doesn't make it one. You all were going on the fact that one minus .000...1 or whatever equals one, therefore .999 = one, but it doesn't work that way. You say you throw away the one in the subtraction because you are not allowed to add on a digit to the end of infinity. Well, that's exactly what happens if you try to add on a .000...1 to the .999... You can't add a point one in whatever point because you say you cannot modify something at the end of infinity. Therefore using your rule, 1 minus .000...1 equals one, because it's 1 minus 0... as the 1 can't exist... but .999... with a 1 added to the last nine equals .999... because you can't add the 1 at the end, according to your rule. So the only way it could ever equal one, is if you rounded up.

You guys were saying that the only reason .999... = 1 is because if you take 1=.000... with a 1 at the end, it equals one. You guys said it has to be one, because you can't add or subtract a number from infinity. So why doesn't that rule also work with the addition of an infinitely small addition of a 1 at the end of the .999... example? You said you can't add a number to infinity, so why are you then able to assume .999... is equal to one just because 1 - .000...1 is equal to one. Am I missing the point here? Are you guys saying a rule exists in one example, but not in the other? But... I've always known I'm an idiot in the mathematics world... which is why I'm sitting here making forum posts, and you're all out there being high paid math professors, or solving the secrets of the universe using the .999... example.

Are you a ****ing idiot? Yes you are. You can't put a one after something that doesn't end. 0.999...1 does NOT exist. I know you're just trying to bring up the discussion again by posting the same stupid crap as the first threads. Shut up, you're gonna get infractions.

jeeze calm down math geek ^^^ are you going to go to the math club and show that post so you can all laugh together in your underground lair and drink prune juice?

Exactly what I was saying. I've only been going by the information you guys have been giving me on the reason it does equal one. The fractions example given makes much more sense than the other explanation that one of you guys used to validate in the subtraction aspect but not in the addition aspect. I didn't bring up the discussion in this thread you fool. And who are you to say I'm going to get infractions? Are you a moderator? You're the one being an asshole with your pre-emptive insults.

That's a very good mnemonic for "memorizing" the first 100,000 digits of pi. Eh, he didn't really memorize them did he? He just memorized a system that would allow him to recite the 100,000 first digits of pi... But you can put the 0. on the left side, the 1 on the right side, and an "infinite" number of nines in the middle. Think about this mental construction for a sec...

razziar 0.000...1 does not exist. People have supplied at least 10 different proofs for 0.999...=1 in these forums, its mathematically absurd to disagree after seeing just one proof. I'm going to guide you through it: First lets establish 1/3=0.333... Put it in your calculator, or do it yourself, keep going for as long as you're sure you'll get 3's ever time. Okay, so if you agree that 1/3=0.333... Then time both sides by 3 to get: 3/3=0.999... And what does 3/3 equal? 1 so 0.999...=3/3=1 0.999...=1

As I said, the fraction example makes much more sense than the one I was going off of, that somebody else provided. As the way they were doing it, it wouldn't work since they were applying a rule that didn't allow you to modify the end of the infinity, yet with the other one to explain their point, they were allowing themselves to modify the end of infinity.